nortex97 said:
The classical answer is that God wishes to save all/both as classes, not individuals. (Usually this is in reference to 1 Tim. 2-4). Calvin:
Quote:
In short, as the calling is a proof of the secret election, so they whom God makes partakers of his gospel are admitted by him to possess salvation; because the gospel reveals to us the righteousness of God, which is a sure entrance into life. Hence we see the childish folly of those who represent this passage to be opposed to predestination. "If God" say they, "wishes all men indiscriminately to be saved, it is false that some are predestined by his eternal purpose to salvation, and others to perdition." They might have had some ground for saying this, if Paul were speaking here about individual men; although even then we should not have wanted the means of replying to their argument; for, although the: will of God ought not to be judged from his secret decrees, when he reveals them to us by outward signs, yet it does not therefore follow that he has not determined with himself what he intends to do as to every individual man. But I say nothing on that subject, because it has nothing to do with this passage; for the Apostle simply means, that there is no people and no rank in the world that is excluded from salvation; because God wishes that the gospel should be proclaimed to all without exception. Now the preaching of the gospel gives life; and hence he justly concludes that God invites all equally to partake salvation. But the present discourse relates to classes of men, and not to individual persons; for his sole object is, to include in this number princes and foreign nations.
Luther:
Quote:
"God desires all men to be saved" (1 Tim. 2:4), and He gave His Son for us men and created man for eternal life. Likewise: All things exist for man, and he himself exists for God that he may enjoy Him, etc.39 These points and others like them can be refuted as easily as the first one. For these verses must always be understood as pertaining to the elect only, as the apostle says in 2 Tim. 2:10 "everything for the sake of the elect." For in an absolute sense Christ did not die for all, because He says: "This is My blood which is poured out for you" and "for many"He does not say: for all"for the forgiveness of sins" (Mark 14:24, Matt 26:28) (Luther's Works Volume 25.376)
Personally, I find it incredibly (to say the least, but uninterested in a long derail/debate) unlikely 1 Timothy was actually written by Paul, and largely dismiss the letter in any case, but that's the standard reformed view, as I have understood it.
I know what the Reformed interpretation of those verses are. And disagree with their interpretation. The plain reading is very clear.
Calvin and Luther are using eisegesis to interpret Scripture so that it will become compatible with their view of election and predestination.
Now you could say I am doing the same with my thoughts. But I am not saying election and predestination are not Scriptural. I am saying that to be compatible with other Scripture, the terms are not talking about exactly who will be saved and who will be damned. I do not think the terms apply to individuals.
And I see how Calvin came to his conclusions. I disagree with them when you look at the whole of Scripture. It is like he came to his conclusion on predestination and election then interprets all Scripture through that lens.
Calvin also seems to be a very miserable, petty, and mean spirited person. Ask poor Servatus. Don't see that in the fruits of the Spirit.
No material on this site is intended to be a substitute for professional medical advice, diagnosis or treatment. See full
Medical Disclaimer.